A 56-year-old man has painful weeping rashes over the upper eyelid and forehead for the last two days along with ipsilateral acute punctate keratopathy. One-year back, he had chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. There is no other abnormality. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (AIIMS May 2013)
Herpes zoster mostly afflicts those past 50 years of age, but also affects immunocompromised individuals. It is due to reactivation of a virus that has been sitting latent in a posterior root ganglion of a spinal nerve. It starts with pain or paresthesia in the distribution of one or more dermatomes. Involvement of ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve leads to blisters on forehead on one side along with corneal involvement.