82 out of 120
The following statements IS true regarding dry age-related macular degeneration (AIIMS May 2012)
|A||it will typically have a visual acuity of 6/60 or worse within 2 years|
|B||the optimal management is with low visual aids|
|C||the contralateral eye will be simultaneously affected in all cases|
|D||the patient should be promptly referred for fluorescein angiography|
Ans. B the optimal management is with low visual aids
In dry AMD, the progression is slower than wet or neovascular AMD, causing moderate and sometimes severe vision loss over one or two decades.